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Tarb's avatar
1dEdited

Perhaps they should simply not swear people to secrecy about the conclave at all. Why is that necessary to begin with?

I am not sure exactly when the rule about secrecy was first started. One can certainly find plenty of information about the voting in conclaves in centuries past in their Wikipedia articles (see, for a random example, https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/1830–1831_conclave), indicating that either it hadn't been instituted then, or cardinals back then were ignoring any secrecy vows. If it is the latter, and cardinals have been ignoring it for centuries, is there any purpose to continuing the vow that doesn't accomplish anything?

If it's the former, and the secrecy was introduced at some later point, one must ask why it was instituted, and if those reasons are still valid. Is it actually that terrible a thing for people to know things like who were the frontrunners, especially given people do seem to know anyway? Even if there were zero leaks, again one must ask: What does no one knowing what happened actually accomplish?

A few more comments:

"Indeed, since I wrote this passage, Archbishop Guy de Kermiel of Toulouse appointed a priest who was convicted of raping a teen boy in 2006 to the prestigious office of diocesan chancellor. The bishop said that he acted out of “mercy.”"

This was a bad one. Even if we suppose the priest was completely repentant, simple PR considerations should have precluded this appointment. Desire to avoid scandal--both in the Catholic moral sense and the more colloquial sense of the word--by itself should have prompted the bishop to not do this. At least another bishop did criticize him for this, but I don't think that resulted in any retraction of the appointment yet.

In regards to this footnote:

“Of course, the Pope is obligated to obey divine law at all times, same as everybody else. The pope can derogate from a day of fasting or move the date of Easter, but he can’t get drunk and hire prostitutes.

Well, he can, it’s been tried, but he’ll go to Hell.”

This then links to a page about Alexander VI that among other things refers to the Banquet of Chestnuts, the incident you refer to. The problem is, you refer to this as if it's definite fact ("it's been tried"), when it's actually questionable whether this event occurred. Various historians view the account with skepticism; true, others seem to find it more credible, but there are still real questions as to whether this ever happened as described (see, for example, the Wikipedia page at https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Banquet_of_Chestnuts and while I know it's tempting to not be too trustful of Wikipedia given the fact anyone can edit it, I don't think it's a site that has a particularly pro-religious bias--and again, it simply is echoing the skepticism of historians).

This is not to say that other accusations of Alexander VI which do have more evidence for them are not true--but this one seems questionable to use as an example given the uncertainty about whether it actually happened. If "Well, he can, it's been tried" had been reworded to something like "Well, he can, and one was accused of this", that would have been preferable.

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Chuck C's avatar

As one famous priest likes to say, "Do the Red, Say the Black". It applies outside the Liturgies as well...

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